Re: YSID
On 8 May, 15:26, "Mike Schilling" <mscottschill...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Paul Clarke wrote:
According to many linguists the Germanic languages, including
English,
don't have a future tense either - see, for example, the Language
Log
post athttp://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=897.
I will be surprised if I find that argument convincing.
They will already have discovered the existence of "will X", of
course, but they will know that it's not reliable as a mark of future
time.
.
Relevant Pages
- Re: YSID
... there is no grammatical future tense. ... We express future either by using present and understanding from context that it actually means future or we cobble it together out of a phrase implying assurance Such lack of a real grammatical future has not been an obstacle to the use or understanding of English. ... This leads me to believe that a statement such as "Their language has no means of expressing time flow" does not really mean the speakers can't comprehend time flow, which kills many otherwise interesting implications. ...
(rec.arts.sf.written) - Re: Universal grammar
... I do not which language it would apply to. ... (and I am not very good at natural language grammars) ... (two of -acak future tense ... Turkish then, as you note, even if it is not common practice. ...
(sci.lang) - Re: Universal grammar
... This was two and half decades ago, and my memory of it is rather shaky, so ... I do not which language it would apply to. ... (and I am not very good at natural language grammars) ... (two of -acak future tense ...
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