Re: Socialism in SF



"Mike Schilling" <mscottschilling@xxxxxxxxxxx> rote in news:iluxl.14180$8_
3.8436@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx:

Just out of curiosity, how do you take the
Cartesian product of nonempty sets and have the result come out to
be
empty?

How do you, a century after Russell, assume that naive intuition
* accurately describes the universe of sets?


I don't think the axiom of choice is naïve, though making it an axiom is
part of what turns naïve set theory into axiomatic set theory. Nor do I
think Frege's axioms for second order logic are particularly intuitive; in
fact the murkiness of it is why, I think, he got into trouble whereas
Cantor didn't. Frege used a certain axiom to prove Hume's principle, which
is that two sets are the same size if and only if they are in one to one
correspondence. If you toss his (murky) axiom which leads to Russell's
paradox and replace it with the intuitive Hume's principle, you get a
system of second order logic strong enough to prove second order
arithmetic, and no headaches like Russell's paradox. If Frege's axioms had
said in a clear way that you had weird stuff like the set of all sets I
think it would have also been clear that it was not intuitive and
potentially paradoxical.


--
"It's not like there is much that is universal among economists." -- Shawn
Wilson
.



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