Re: not for illiterate,s
- From: Stephen Rush <sjrush@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 31 Aug 2006 11:48:59 -0400
On Thu, 31 Aug 2006 15:10:26 +0000, Dennis L. McKiernan wrote:
Neither comma nor apostrophe, but instead plural without either:
"Illiterates."
Anybody know where the idea that all English plural nouns take an
apostrophe came from? I can understand homonym confusion; a spellchecker
will tell you that "their", "there" and "they're" are all correct, even
though two of them will be wrong for a given use. I can even understand
the "its"/"it's" fumble, since most possessives do take an apostrophe.
But why did people on Usenet (and Web boards) start sticking apostrophes
into nouns that have standard plural forms? It's even beginning to ooze
into print; I recently saw a sign that read "EMPLOYEE'S ONLY."
.
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