Re: How to delay a moving van?
- From: "J.Pascal" <julie@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 8 Jan 2008 08:18:27 -0800 (PST)
On 8 Jan, 01:02, Daniel R. Reitman <dreit...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Tue, 8 Jan 2008 00:55:10 -0700, "Monique Y. Mudama"
<s...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Assuming the purpose is to protect the 16 year old from harm, what's
the difference?
Is it just the assumption that the 26 year old should know better and
is most likely just screwing around, whereas the 18 year old doesn't
know any better and mistakenly thinks it's true love?
. . . .
In mozt jurisdictions with an age differential system, the policy
seems to be prevention of abuse of power.
Exactly.
Saying what is the difference is like saying there isn't any
difference in a relationship between a teacher and student or doctor
and patient or minister and parishioner. Should we accept those as
well because the student, patient, or parishioner is plenty old enough
and "ready" to have sex?
I mean, "ready to have sex" is a weird idea to me. It seems rather
obvious that any "child" who is "sexually mature" is ready to have
sex. Biology intends them to have sex at 12 and 13, but we pretend
that a 12 or 13 year old is not "ready" to have sex, despite their
bodies, and a 16 year old is ready to have sex with persons with
vastly greater power than them?
The 26 and 16 year old bother me (and obviously I'm not alone) because
it seems so very likely that what the 26 year old is usually getting
out of the relationship is control and dominance in an unequal
situation.
I don't figure that teens ought to be having sex but I do realize that
they are *ready* to have sex from the time they are biologically
sexually mature. It makes a great deal of sense to me to view sex
with peers very differently from sex with people who are not peers.
-Julie
.
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