Re: Why did Farimir take Frodo to Osgiliath?

On Mon, 1 Dec 2008 10:18:45 -0800 (PST), Dave Wyble <dave@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

A friend in my office is going through the books and movies for the
first time, and he asks me these questions now and then. I really
would like to know what the group feels is the reasoning behind this
diversion from Tolkien's story line.

So far all I can come up with relates to the death sentence Farimir
signs for himself by releasing Frodo and Sam without Denethor's
permission. In the wilderness, he is surrounded by his most loyal
followers, and it seems unlikely that any of them would turn him in
to Denethor. However, by exposing himself to the greater population of
warriors at Osgiliath, we are nearly certain that someone would say
something.

I'm sure there are other opinions out there. Please do not turn this
into an attack on Peter Jackson. I know there are strong opinions on
all sides of this. Whether you think he is an idiot or not, he still
must have had a reason for this plot change.

I have always thought that PJ had Frodo go to Osgiliath so that we
would recognize it when we saw it again in the third film.

Of course, that presupposes a competence as a film maker that is
denied by the third film; however, when the script was written, PJ was
probably still competent enough to plan something like that.
--
"A portent, therefore, happens not contrary to nature,
but contrary to what we know as nature."
.

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