Re: Malloy doesn't have any support for his position

On Oct 15, 9:15 am, "Paul Thomas, CPA" <paulthomascp...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
blathered:

Yeah, they do.  If they are here, they pay tax.  If they do business at all
with anyone here, they do. But they aren't free.  They are paid for by someone at some time. If no one paid for them they would not exist.  Conversely, if those services did not exist, no one would have to pay. Those services are not available for people who are not there in that
community.  Meaning, the Chineese can not avail themselves of the California
government provided goods and services. Why is that?  If they are "free" to
people who do not pay....as you keep claiming.....then why aren't Chineese
farmers being educated in California schools? Only people ~~THERE~~ get those benefits.  Why?  Because the people there
pay various taxes either directly of indirectly that support those services. If I take a trip to California, some portion of the money I pay for travel,
lodging, meals, etc is for taxes, either directly (as a sales tax) or
indirectly in the price paid.  So I would pay taxes of some amount to the
state, county or city for some amount of services that I used or benefitted
or enjoyed while I was there.  Is there someone from the government stopping
me and asking for the tax?  Maybe on a toll road, but in general, no.  The
money is collected by the retailers and service providers in their prices
(and/or tacked on to the price) of goods and/or services. Not directly, not al forms of tax.  Indirectly yes, everyone pays some
amount of tax. Name me one. There is not (or not often) direct billing for most government provided
services.  But they are paid for by all, in some amount, at some point in
time. I don't pay California property taxes.  I can not enroll my child there.  If
it was "free" to people who don't pay, why can't I enroll my kids there?
Huh?  Can you answer that? Sure, because someone smarter than you realizes that because they are
~~there~~ they pay some amount of taxes at some point in their life.
Someone who is smarter than you decided to not deny someone government
provided services because they haven't paid enough in taxes.  Meaning,
government provided services are not doled out to individuals based on the
amount of tax that individual has paid. Sure there is.  The cost of "something in return" is what sets the amount of
tax to be paid.  The mechanisim used to assess that tax among the population
is what determines the amount to be paid by each one.  Is the mechanisim faulty?  That's for another set of posts.  But, if the mechanisim (maybe
based on income) sets the direct amount of tax to be $0 for a specific
individual, then that's what it is.  If the mechanisim (maybe a sales tax)
sets the amount of tax to be 6%, and a specific individual spends $100 and
pays $6 in tax, that's what it is. Sure it does.  Someone has to pay for the services.  Period.
It's not a free exchange. The relevant connection is space.  There is lots of space between me and
California (thank God!!), and I have no direct contact with that state, so I
pay no taxes directly to that state, and WOW BATMAN!!!!!! I receive no government services from that state. You see how it works?
Because of proximity.  They are ~~there~~.  I am not.
They pay taxes either directly or indirectly to the state and local
government. Indeed. Yes.  The connection is even more distinct with leases.

Quod gratis asseritur, gratis negatur.

--Jackney Sneeb

http://nogov4me.net/index-old-2008.htm






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