Re: Income Shmimcome

""The 16th clearly states that income/profit FROM CORPORATIONS is to be
taxed. It says nothing about taxing the wages of laborers.

If that's in the code book of the IRS, it was put there by someone
other than the framers of the Constitution.
""

The 16th Amendment states nothing of the kind - what sort of faux
constitution have you been reading?

Here's the text of the 16th Amendment itself: "The Congress shall have
power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived,
without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any
census or enumeration."

Now, my eye-sight may not be what it used to be, but I don't see a single
reference in there that limits the application to income "FROM
CORPORATIONS," do you?

In fact, I don't see the word "corporation" in there even once, not in
reference to anything.

I therefore necessarily follows that (a) you're a liar, or an ignorant
fool, for stating that the 16th Amendment "clearly states" that only
income from corporations is to be taxed, and (b) the 16th Amendment is
not, in fact, limited only to income from corporations.

Finally, let's quote, for the nth time, the language from Pollock v.
Farmers Loan & Trust Co., 158 U.S. 601, 635 (1895), which was, obviously,
construing the Constitution in the absence of the 16th Amendment, to wit:
"We have considered the act only in respect of the tax on income derived
from real estate, and from invested personal property, and have not
commented on so much of it as bears on gains or profits from business,
privileges, or employments, in view of the instances in which taxation on
business, privileges, or employments has assumed the guise of an excise
tax and been sustained as such."

What's that say, ignoramus? It says that, even without the 16th
Amendment, Congress has always, ever since 1789, had the power to tax
wages under the Constitution.

Ergo, since the IRC includes wages in taxable income, it was, in fact, put
there by the Founding Fathers.

.

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