Re: Civil Rights Question


"Anon E. Moose" <nobody@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:m3ph92tagvk99gcsf1k902f0kk3hqvcbf3@xxxxxxxxxx
Trying to settle a bet with a buddy...

As I understand "civil rights" in the United states, it is illegal
for, say, a restaurant owner not give service to someone on the basis
of their race.

Is it likewise a violation of "civil rights" in the United States for
a person not to frequent a restaurant on the basis of the owner's
race?

In other words, it would be a violation of a person's civil rights if
a restaurant owner told a black patron, "I don't patronize blacks" and
pointed to the door, no?

Would it likewise be a violation of a restaurant owner's civil rights
if a person told a black restaurant owner, "I don't patronize blacks"
and walked out the door.

If not, why?

Not in the US..just the states. Refusing to serve a person of any color in a
privately owned place has nothing to do with "commerce among the several
states." nor a crime against the US.




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