Civil Rights Question
- From: Anon E. Moose <nobody@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 20 Jun 2006 23:33:28 -0700
Trying to settle a bet with a buddy...
As I understand "civil rights" in the United states, it is illegal
for, say, a restaurant owner not give service to someone on the basis
of their race.
Is it likewise a violation of "civil rights" in the United States for
a person not to frequent a restaurant on the basis of the owner's
In other words, it would be a violation of a person's civil rights if
a restaurant owner told a black patron, "I don't patronize blacks" and
pointed to the door, no?
Would it likewise be a violation of a restaurant owner's civil rights
if a person told a black restaurant owner, "I don't patronize blacks"
and walked out the door.
If not, why?
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