Re: Toxemia - the root cause of disease
- From: carole <hubbca2003@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 4 Jan 2011 11:04:16 -0800 (PST)
On Jan 4, 8:41 am, D Baten <dserv.ba...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On 1/3/2011 11:59 AM, carole wrote:
On Dec 23 2010, 12:45 pm, D Baten<dserv.ba...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On 12/21/2010 12:39 PM, carole wrote:
It is this central
cause which we claim to have found and to which we apply the term,
Carole, the above indicates that it is they who are redefining the
original meaning of the word. Not the other way around.
'and to which we apply the term toxemia'
So you think that the orthopaths or nature cure people, have redefined
toxemia to suit their system?
How many times are you going to ask the same question?
Until you get it right Baten.
Using only the citation that YOU provided, I have shown 3 times that
they said they were applying the word toxemia to their theory -
But you say nothing here which is your typical MO of spouting dribble.
The question is who what is the correct definition of the word toxemia
- the allopath definition (that relates it to a condition of
pregnancy) or the orthopaths who say it is a condition of impure
Yes, it was my reference - but what does it mean Baten? We are not
It was, and is, YOUR reference - no getting around it.
saying that it isn't my reference but asking what it means. Once again
you show your total ineptitutde for analysing information and merely
The allopathic definition of toxemia is a condition of pregnancy, and
that is it.
LHow many times for this also:
I have replied several times to this - showing that the correct medical
term is preeclampsia, toxemia only being used when a sub-set condition
And I have commented that the allopaths have REMOVED or overwritten
the original meaning of the word due to the fact that to allow toxemia
of the blood, they would then need to address the condition instead of
merely pushing drugs.
Are you saying that the meaning of toxemia has been expanded by the
How many times for this question?
YOUR citation says they applied it to the new theory they developed.
No it doesn't Baten. You read things into the wording that aren't
If I say to you that rain falls from the sky and to this phenemena we
give the word "precipitation", would I be defining precipitation?
In short I wouldn't, it is merely a manner of speech - so you read
something into a sentence which isn't there - which is your typical MO
ie either stating the bleeding obvious or using play on words to find
a meaning, or reading into things what isn't there.
In each of the above, you keep circling back and don't respond to what I
write, you just ask the same set again, and again - why?
Because what you write is crap and leads nowhere.
Also, please explain how any of the paragraphs you cite applies to
viruses, or bacteria which overwhelm the body's immune function capability.
The theory is that toxemia (orthopathic definition) is the root cause
of disease, that germs and microbes only thrive in a toxic
Yet that theory has not been able to be shown true over this past 100 years.
No Baten, it is not that it hasn't been found to be true, it is
because the pharmaceutical cartel is suppressing the true cause of
disease - ie toxemia.
I posit this:
If true, it is only necessary for ortho's to set up a replicable study
wherein X number of individuals are given that which will keep them
correctly balanced, and over X period of time, they won't get sick.
Additionally, they can be subjected to exposure to X bacteria/virii, and
will remain immune.
Now, the ortho community is quite large, and in no way is it financially
limited - so why is it that this isn't being done?
You'd have to ask the orthopaths that question Baten. We are at the
moment discussing the word toxemia, its meaning and your inane
Prescription drugs are the 4th leading cause of death in USA
-- Journal of American Medical Association (JAMA) - 15 April 1998
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