Re: Credit card fees - hmmm
- From: websurf1@xxxxxxx
- Date: 28 Jan 2007 18:44:33 -0800
On Jan 28, 6:26 pm, Scott en Aztlán <scottenazt...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Say you charge $1,000 at the beginning of every billing period and payor more in merchant fees, providing a return to the CC company on the
it off in full by its due date a month or so later. That's essentially
an interest-free loan from the credit card company. Those who carry
balances on which they pay interest and fees are subsidizing
cardholders with no revolving balance.Bullshit. When I made that $1000 purchase, some store owner paid $25
money they loaned me. But don't think the merchant is subsidizing my
interest-free loan, either. Merchants don't eat the merchant fees -
they pass them right along to the consumer in the form of higher
prices. Thus, there is NO subsidizing going on - I pay for my
"interest-free" loan myself in the form of higher retail prices.
Which means there is a subsidy by those who don't use the cards.
I only use them on purchases above $15 usually. Otherwise, the
merchant may not make anything at all on the sale.
.
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