Re: Command to obtain a matrix from its eigenvalues
- From: "Matt " <xys@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 2 Jun 2009 17:25:03 +0000 (UTC)
"Bruno Luong" <b.luong@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message <h03in6$lro$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>...
From what I have learn - I disagree: matrix A has only *one* eigenvalue {1}, since the kernel (nullspace) of [A-1*eye(2)] is one dimension space.
So A does *not* have {1,1} as eigenvalues. It has {1} as eigenvalue.
Well...... I've seen a number of linear algebra texts in which repeated eigenvalues are not considered to be single eigenvalues. They are considered to have "multiplicity" n>1.
But even we accept your framework for a moment, it doesn't simplify the problem. Even if the eigenvalue set is is just {1}, I've still presented you with an example of a real matrix A which is not representable as P*diag(Eigenvalues)*inv(P). Since diag{1}=1, the latter just reduces to
P*diag(Eigenvalues)*inv(P) = I ~=A
It also makes the OP's inverse problem more difficult. If you start with the case where the eigenvalue set is {1} and you don't know its multiplicity, you can't know what the size of the original matrix is...
.
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