Probability question regarding Deal or no Deal

Am I the only one who doesn't think that the probability of having the $1,000,000 case when there are only two cases left, the one first chosen and the only one not chosen, is not .5?

My argument is that there is a slightly better chance of it being in the case not chosen yet. My reasoning is this; the odds of leaving the 1,000,000 case in play and then opening 24 non-million dollar cases should be slightly better than 1/26. Can someone please verify that I am correct or explain why I am wrong. Thanks.
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