Re: Machine English, Danish, Norwegian, Swedish, Dutch.



Marco van de Voort wrote:
On 2007-03-26, Quas.co.ua <Quas@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Well.
In Dutch it is even closer "rod" to French "rouge"
It's "rood". But I'm not so sure that "rouge" is of the same stem.
Well.
Why in Dutch I "go door het duer" in English I "go trough the door". (My excuses, if Dutch example has mistakes.)

(3 only, gA door DE dEUr"

Ook. Ik ga door de deur naar mijn kamer.

Only need to find my mistakes in Dutch.

Any way, it is difficult to guess about the origin of the word "door".
And why in English "door" reads as [do:r], but not as Dutch "deur".

From this example is not clear from which language to which came the word "door".

True, but who said it need to be for one one dimensional example? Linguist
did this aeons ago already studying older versions and dialects of
languages, conveniently noted down in the bigger dictionaries.

Another example:
In English "groot" has three equivalents: "great", "large", "big".
Which have several shades of meaning.
Formally very close grammars as for formal (machine) analysis
may have such sensible native differences.

Which are both Germanic languages. But French is not (except some of the
older substrate, if I can believe wikipedia's "Old French" page it is mostly
descendant of local dialects of Vulgar Latin)
Dutch, Danish, French and English are Romano- Germanic languages.

French is Roman, and the others are Gemanic. I never saw a R-G union family.
Of course the language mingled enormously where they touched, but that
happens on all borders.

If you go sufficiently back, nearly all of europe, half or more of the
languages of the middle East and India descend from a mythical Indo-European
language.

But that doesn't brush a way the fact that some languages are closer to
eachother than others inside that family.

Formally Swedish is in the same branch with Norwegian and Danish.
And Finnish is in the same branch with Hungarian but indeed in power of several
reasons Finnish and Swedish enclosed to each other, being different.

Many years ago some dreamer build naive ethemeric theories about connection
of Russian and Ukrainian with some languages in used in India.
There were interesting theories until those theories where not turned into the idea fix.
(Some people even not very gently discussed which of two above is close to Sanscrit.)

Also in ancient sc_ri_pt_s may be found penetration of several languages
into each other (even languages belonged to different groups and families).
And such penetration had been going in centuries continued in modern languages.

But it is a formal classification.

At now the Romano-Germanic languages are classified as a single branch, of Indo-European Languages.

The Latin was composite language,
as well as most of Germanic languages, which perhaps penetrated each other in centuries.

Sure. Not perhaps but sure, it is easy to pinpoint e.g. french words in
English. Even easier in Dutch even, since they often kept their french
pronounciation.
But is that bit of mingling enough to make them one group? I doubt it.
French also had influence of Germanic languages. (Some very little, just may be.)

Romanian also begun as some sort of "Vulgar Latin" has no connection with influence of Germanic languages
(if not count influence of German in period of Austrian Empire).
As for my subjective opinion Romanian sounds very different with French.
(French closer to Germanic.) However they understand each other.

The classification has sub section where R-G segregated for Romanic and Germanic.


.

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