Re: Jacobian Pseudoinverse

On Feb 7, 6:16 am, "Jacky" <j...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
I am no math expert, but I wonder why
J+ = JT (JJT)-1

J+ = Jacobian Pseudoinverse
JT = transpose of the Jacobian
J-1 = inverse of jacobian
How come when J-1 is not defined, (JJT)-1 can be calculated?
Please drop me some comments, it will be greatly appreciated.
Thanks
Jack

The inverse of rectangular matrix J never appears anywhere.
The product of J and its transpose, on the other hand, is square and
as long as it isn't singular it can be inverted.

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moore-Penrose_pseudoinverse for a
discussion that explains the theory, the other cases and some good
ways to calculate J+.
.

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