Jacobian Pseudoinverse
- From: "Jacky" <jl@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 7 Feb 2008 13:16:33 +0800
I am no math expert, but I wonder why
J+ = JT (JJT)-1
J+ = Jacobian Pseudoinverse
JT = transpose of the Jacobian
J-1 = inverse of jacobian
How come when J-1 is not defined, (JJT)-1 can be calculated?
Please drop me some comments, it will be greatly appreciated.
Thanks
Jack
.
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