Re: L2TP question
- From: Doug McIntyre <merlyn@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 14 Feb 2008 00:42:35 GMT
"Juergen Kluth" <jkluth@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
There's not much point in the ISP initiating the tunnel at their LAC
if there's not something at the remote network end to terminate that
tunnel...
You are right , i forgot the LNS
But again : If i would or would have to work with this config:
-Must i ask in this case wether the ISP has a "LAC" capable device (normally
i would assume a DSLAM or else for the endpoint of my dial up connection) ?
to create a tunnel to "my" LNS ?
Not sure what the question is here. In this model of you connecting to
an ISP, and the ISP auto-tunneling your taffic, yes, the ISP would
have to have a RAS/BRAS device capable of being a L2TP LAC. That in
turn would identify your clients dialing in and auto-starting the
tunnel for that user to the LNS.
-"My" LNS, must the this be connected by a fixed / leased line ? Or must it
just typically have a constant IP address ?
It can be anywhere you have IP connectivity to. Policies of the
service the ISP offering you L2TP services may dictate what they
consider reasonable for connection back to your LNS. The L2TP
tunnelling all happens on the layer-3 IP layer though.
A fixed IP address is pretty much a given for the LNS end.
The other model you originally mentioned last in your first post with
an onsite CPE user device being a LAC to initiate the tunnel across
the Net doesn't require the ISPs involvement in any fashion what-so-ever.
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: L2TP question
- From: Juergen Kluth
- Re: L2TP question
- References:
- L2TP question
- From: Juergen Kluth
- Re: L2TP question
- From: Doug McIntyre
- Re: L2TP question
- From: Juergen Kluth
- L2TP question
- Prev by Date: Re: L2TP question
- Next by Date: Re: L2TP question
- Previous by thread: Re: L2TP question
- Next by thread: Re: L2TP question
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|
|
