Re: logical laws of Nature



On 15 Jan, 17:48, "Kowdlar" <elu...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Uzytkownik "N" <n.m.ke...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> napisal w wiadomoscinews:c594aae1-04c7-4b81-9fe8-d0dd65f819d8@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
On 14 Jan, 11:17, elu...@xxxxxxxxxx wrote:





Hi

Since Arystoteles causality is meant, formal, cause ==>
effect , it means that cause is sufficient for effect, and effect
is necessary for cause. That law is not truth and brings on so many
paradoxes. Hume and Wittgenstein proof it

I propose change this implication , and now causality is formal like
(effect==>cause) , this implication says that effect( in formal) is
sufficient for cause, and cause is necessery for effect.

This simple change solves all paracoxes old Arystoteleses low of
causality. And one can say that causality is not determinate.

But determinizm one can definites like that ( cause ==> effect),
because if cause is sufficient for effect than we can say that it is
pure determinizm. But I predicate that this determinizm is not truth
in all ways, but cauality is indeterminate and has form ( effect==>
cause).

Kowdlar

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Retrocausality?

No, it isn't rather retrocausality, but I can be wrong. Because my proposal
changes only logical implication( reverse ), but in time a cause always be
first, before effect.
K.
--
felix, qui potuit rerum cognoscere causas- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

can anyone be sure of 'logical laws of nature' anyhow? I mean to
say we're using what we're biologically capable of, and stuff a priori
& misunderstood premis etc,

or might you take a look at all the kinds of similar notions and
make a comparative estimations perhaps/

In my mind, I'd say (please) as this is artificial intelligence how
might an engineer get from your proposal to QM,
.



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