Re: "I intended to go abroad"/"I intended to have gone abroad"(Do they mean the same?)
- From: "Pat Durkin" <durk183@xxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 30 Apr 2008 09:23:32 -0500
"datere" <ee123456etw@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:7a79f39b-5552-45d0-bbef-8e96ee6ef410@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
This grammar book is a rather old one, but it's not my only book. I
often check out several books before I can make a conclusion. I have
seen examples like "I intended to have gone abroad, but my mother was
against it." in 2 of my grammar books, but I am still doubtful about
it. That's why I post this question.
Your opinions are all valuable to me. Thank you for that.
For the most part, the labored structure you are asking about here is not used in informal speech.
In fact, it seems to be the kind of sentence a grammar book would use as a way of clarifying the time when the intent was entertained--an exercise.
The infinitive is basically lacking in time determiners (tense) and for most things the tense is provided by the auxiliary verbs. "I intended to have gone abroad" may be judged necessary in some writing, but I think you will find that the spoken word, especially stress for emphasis and differentiation, but also facial expressions, body postures and gestures will clarify these ideas.
.
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