Re: questions about logical sequence of the meanings of verb tenses

On Apr 8, 4:05 am, Eagleflych <eaglefl...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Hi, everybody:

I have an idea about "the logical sequence of the meanings of all verb
tenses" and I am not sure that I am right. Please help me.

I think:

In the negative forms of all verb tenses, the objects modified by the
negative meanings are the original meanings of main verbs and the
meanings of following words.

Afterward, the objects modified by the affirmative meanings of the
verb tenses are the negative meanings, the original meanings of main
verbs and the meanings of following words.

We can use the sequence formula to explain the negative forms of all
verb tenses:

"the affirmative meanings of the verb tenses"---"the negative
meanings" ---"the original meanings of main verbs and the meanings of
following words"

For example, please watch the two sentences below:

1.

I have bought a book for a year.

(In the sentence, the logical sequence is "the affirmative meaning of
the verb tense"---"the original meanings of main verbs and the
meanings of following words", namely, "the continuing"---"buying a
book for a year". The sentence is wrong, because the action of "buying
a book" can't continue for a year.)

2.

I have not bought any books for a year.

(In the sentence, the logical sequence is "the affirmative meaning of
the verb tenses"---"the negative meanings" ---"the original meanings
of main verbs and the meanings of following words", namely, "the
continuing"---"the negative meaning of 'not' "---"buying any books for
a year". The sentence is right, because the state of "not buying any
books" can continue for a year.)

Are my thoughts above right?

If the grammar rules that I said above are right, are the rules
applicable to other verb tenses?

For example in the sentence of "She is not reading the book right
now.", does the negative form of The Present Continuous tense have the
same logical sequence as The Present Perfect Tense?

Thanks a lot in advance.


Hi, everybody:

I am afraid that I didn't say clearly, so I will add more information.

My meaning is:


In the sentence of "I have not bought any books for a year" , the
meaning of the Present Perfect tense is "to continue".

And there are two possible logic sequences relating to the arrangement
of the meanings of all parts of the sentence.

1.the first logic sequence:

"the meaning of the Present Perfect Tense"( namely, to continue ) +
"not" + "buy any books" + "for a year".

The logic sequence means "to continue not buying any books for a
year."

In the logic sequence, "not" negates "buying any books".

And "buying any book " is "buy any books". This is the original
meaning of the main verb "buy".

2. the second logic sequence:

"not" + "the meaning of the Present Perfect Tense"( namely, to
continue ) + "buy any books" + "for a year".

The logic sequence means "to negate the continuing of buying any books
for a year"

In the logic sequence, "not" negates "the continuing of buying any
book ".

And "the continuing of buying any book " is "the meaning of the
Present Perfect"( namely, to continue ) + "buy any books". This is
not the original meaning of the main verb "buy".


Well then, which logic sequence is right?

Is the logic sequence ("the meaning of the Present Perfect
Tense"( namely, to continue ) + "not" + "buy any books" + "for a
year".) right?

Or is the logic sequence("not" + "the meaning of the Present
Perfect"( namely, to continue ) + "buy any books" + "for a year". )
right?

I think the first logic sequence is right, but I am not sure.

Through study of the Present Perfect Tense, I guess in all negative
forms of all verb tenses, the objects modified by negations are always
the original meanings of main verbs, not---"the meanings of verb
tenses" + "the original meanings of main verbs"


.

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