Re: "two-two" revisited

On Feb 19, 12:15 pm, Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
...
I believe Yiddish is typically figured to have begun diverging from
German around the eleventh or twelfth century, as Jews moved east into
non-German-speaking areas.

Please explain how one of the multiple Germans, on a par with any
other of the German dialects, referred by you to a time where there
was no Amtsdeutsch, no standard German, manages to "diverge", only
because it is written with some liturgically privileged script and its
Slavic and otherwise Oriental loans are not the same as those of other
German dialects. So has each and every one of trhe different of German
"diverged" in the same time, then. Not being part of the cultural area
of a way, way later artificial standard has not changed a bit the
language's character, as far as one can tell.

Of all the nonsense. Well then, Serbian and Croatian have "diverged"
because they prefer their own liturgically privileged script and one
has slightly more borrowings from Turkish versus the other one's Latin
and Italian, eh? Urdu and Hindi are no more two twin dialects of ex-
Hindustani because they "diverged" in the same measure. And so on and
so forth.

Interestingly, in my experience German and Austrian Jews (non-
linguists) tended to dismiss Yiddish as "bad German", while Jews from
elsewhere consider it a separate language.

Of course. As any Tom, Dick or Harry will dismiss any non-standard
dialect of anything as "bad language", while nationalist ignoramuses
will always stress the separateness.
.

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