Re: A dog has forepores?
- From: Robert Bannister <robban1@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 10 Feb 2008 07:56:14 +0900
Peter Moylan wrote:
On 09/02/08 01:25, Bob Cunningham wrote:
On Fri, 08 Feb 2008 13:46:32 +1100, in alt.usage.english
Peter Moylan <peter@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Yes and no. The diphthong in English "meal" is difficult for a French
speaker to pronounce, so if the person saying it wasn't fluent in
English it could come out sounding like "mille".
The _Oxford Hachette French Dictionary_ shows French "mille"
pronounced [mil]; English "meal", [mi:l]. In their
explanatory section, they say they're using the
International Phonetic Alphabet. This says the English
vowel in "meal" is a lengthened variant of the French vowel
in "mille". But I don't doubt that that's only roughly
true.
I'd go a little further; I think my English "meal" is closer to [mi:@l].
That is, it uses a diphthong rather than a pure vowel. It's possible
that this varies from one dialect of English to another.
I'd agree with that. I'm one of those few people who do not have a diphthong in "poor" (ie for me, it rhymes with "paw"). I do, however, have a diphthong in "tour" (which in the UK, seems to have become "taw") and I do in "meal" unless I say it very quickly.
--
Rob Bannister
.
- References:
- A dog has forepores?
- From: Egbert White
- Re: A dog has forepores?
- From: Django Cat
- Re: A dog has forepores?
- From: Egbert White
- Re: A dog has forepores?
- From: Peter Moylan
- Re: A dog has forepores?
- From: Bob Cunningham
- Re: A dog has forepores?
- From: Peter Moylan
- A dog has forepores?
- Prev by Date: Re: (recent political-correctness) "oriental" vs "asian"?
- Next by Date: Re: integrated together?
- Previous by thread: Re: A dog has forepores?
- Next by thread: Re: A dog has forepores?
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|