Re: when to use the plural form of a noun

Jeffrey Turner wrote:

Robert Lieblich wrote:

So to the extent that the issue is grammatical, I'd say that ordinary
notions of agreement in number call for plural "prices" and
corresponding plural "have."

You sound like a man who knows the price of everything but the
value of nothing. Why else would anyone mess with a perfectly
good idiom?

[I didn't snip anything. If anyone wants to follow and can't, you'll
just have to trace the references.]

There's no idiom there, i.e., no basis for saying that the phrase "the
price of oil and gasoline" can idiomatically take a singular verb.
"The price of ham and eggs" is justifiably -- and idiomatically --
treated as a singular, for what is an obvious reason. That reason
does not apply to oil and gasoline -- they are distinct items with
distinct, if related, pricing mechanisms, like (in an example I gave
that was snipped along the way) pork bellies and bacon. You can't go
anywhere and get yourself an order of oil and gasoline. "Oil and
gasoline" ain't "oil and vinegar."

Okay, I may be wrong. Explain to me what you think is an idiom and
why, and maybe I'll be persuaded.

--
Bob Lieblich
Still not too old to learn
.

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