Nothing to do with Robert Lieblich [was: Re: Barking up the wrong tree.]
- From: Bob Cunningham <exw6sxq@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 18 Mar 2006 00:13:48 GMT
On Fri, 17 Mar 2006 17:12:29 -0600, Al in Dallas
<alfargnoli@xxxxxxxxx> said:
[...]
I think "mere" has a short [i], as opposed to the long [i] in "see"
[si:].
A coupla years ago I would have commented on "short [i]" and
"long [i]", but now I just say what the hell, who cares?
By the way, _Merriam-Webster's 11th Collegiate Dictionary_
(_MWCD11_) has only one pronunciation for "mere".
Transliterated to Kirshenbaum ASCII International Phonetic
Alphabet, it's [mIr], where [I] is the vowel in "pig".
The _New Shorter Oxford English Dictionary_ has the same
vowel in its nonrhotic pronunciation of "mere": [mI@].
Thus Signor Volatile's mention of Sparky's pronunciation of
the vowel also applies to the pronunciation in those two
dictionaries.
We need to remember that pronunciations shown in _MWCD11_
are given considerable latitude in the _Guide to
Pronunciation_ in the front of the book. However, now that
I look, they say simply of the vowel in "mere" that it's "as
in tip, banish, active", and they reference "IPA[I]".
I suppose a lot of people pronounce "banish" and "active"
with the vowel of "pig", but my second vowel in those words
is more like IPA [i] (the vowel of "see") ("baneesh" and
"acteev").
.
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