Re: He is a man ....
- From: "Purl Gurl" <purlgurl@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 27 Feb 2006 15:07:41 GMT
Marius Hancu wrote:
JACK PITMAN
He is a big man in every sense of the word.
Big in ambitions, bit in appetite, big in generosity.
He is a man whom it takes a leap of imagination fully to come up to
terms with.
I find this phrase
"He is a man whom it takes a leap of imagination fully to
come up to terms with."
having a slightly contorted syntax, wrt the positioning of "whom" and "with."
Am I right in my feeling?
Yes and no.
Yes because this passage is an odd construct. At first skim
our minds tend to reject wording, being uncommon.
No because the author does use "to whom" albeit not in
an order we commonly read and expect.
However, there is some awkwardness inherent to his writing.
Most would expect, immediate, "to whom" or "for whom"
or "with whom" to appear. The author writes both "to" and "with"
which leads to some confusion; "to whom" versus "with whom"
for his context.
This confusion is somewhat negated by a directional "come up"
which dictates association of "to" with "whom" in his writing,
rather than "with" at his ending.
"He is a man TO whom it takes a leap of imagination TO fully
come up to terms with."
"He is a man FOR whom it takes a leap of imagination TO fully
come up to terms with."
"He is a man WITH whom it takes a leap of imagination TO fully
come up to terms."
Use of "to whom" is the "best" fit for his sentence, but this
uncommon feeling remains. Mine is personal opinion.
His is a perfectly acceptable sentence and does fall into our
notion of "stylistic" writing, an almost prose construct. Any
objection we sense is of "uncommon sense."
My sense is the author attempts to introduce prose into
his writing, but falls short.
Purl Gurl
.
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