Re: Apostolic Queen of Hungary?
- From: Don Aitken <don-aitken@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 30 Dec 2007 10:21:14 +0000
On Sun, 30 Dec 2007 01:24:53 -0600, carsten1@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
I have read, decades ago, that the person who was Austrian Emperor,There was a time, although I'm not sure exactly when (17th century?),
Hungarian and Bohemian King, etc (and I do not remember which of these
attributes gave him the authority) had the right to veto the election of
the Pope. Is this true, or did some bovine coordinator just decide to
make a few bob selling fairy tales to credulous americans such as
myself? If it is false, then end of enquiry. If it is true, by which
position did he have the authority? And how did that work? Did they have
to wait till his AIRM gave the nihil obstat before they proclaimed
when the sovereigns of the Catholic Great Powers (France and Spain as
well as Austria) claimed a veto on the election of a new Pope, which
would be exercised through the Cardinal who represented each of them.
This claim was never recognised in canon law, and was only
intermittently effective. I think it was formally disavowed by an
encyclical of the 18th century.
This is quite separate from the similar claim made intermittently
during the medieval period by the Emperor as such.
Mail to the From: address is not read.
To email me, substitute "clara.co.uk" for "freeuk.com"
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