Re: Act of Settlement and restoration of "Papist" government in 1815

On Aug 31, 1:19 am, Tim <A.Windem...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Aug 30, 11:06 pm, Dom <DR...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

In view of the ongoing discussions about the Act of Settlement and the
provisions that prohibit "Papists" from ascending to the British
throne, I would like to ask the following question:

If the "Protestants" and the "Orthodox" were (and apparently continue
to be) so concerned about "Papists," how come Castlereagh, and
especially Czar Alexander I, imposed the restoration, against the will
of the people, of "Papist" government at the Congress of Vienna in
1815? How is that for hypocricy?

The Congress of Vienna was mainly concerned with restoring peace and
stability to Europe in the wake of the Napoleonic Wars. I don't think
they were very concerned with religious loyalties. Most of the
religious rivalries took place in the 1500's and 1600's. By the 1800's
political, economic, and nationalistic issues were more of a cause for
rivalry than religion. Napoleon had been defeated and the Treaty of
Paris had restored the absolutist Bourbons in France. (The restored
Bourbons were probably more concerned about maintaining "absolutism"
than "Papism" by that time. [snip]

I should have been more clear. I was not referring to the restoration
of the Bourbons in France, but to the reconstitution of the temporal
power in the Papal States--a supreme folly that had such far-reaching
negative consequences.

.

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