Re: "as if" in English law (olim: The Queen of England? ante: The Queen still Duchess of Edinburgh?)




pierre_aronax@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
CJ Buyers a écrit :

pierre_aronax@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:

<...>

There is no legislation in English law, as far as I know, which allows
for *as if* anything. Either one is or one isn't!

Astonishing assertion! What about civiliter mortuus then, and more
specifically about the Act of Settlement and its treatment of Catholics
"as if" naturally dead? What about the well known (and abundantly
discussed here) case of the Duchy of Lancaster: Henry IV decided, with
the Parliament's consent, that he would hold the Duchy of Lancaster "as
if" he had not ascent the throne (so that he was indeed King and Duke
of Lancaster)?

Obviously I was replying to your post and speaking of the *position* of
King of England. One wasn't speaking of dog licencing or the collection
of eggs from the island of Lundy either, but you have my permission to
be astonished about those all the same.

Obviously you made a wrong statement. There is legislation in English
law which allows for "as if.

Obviously you cannot follow a thread. When one comments about something
that is the subject one is addressing, not the price of fish in Cairo
souks.

Obviously you are not of good faith and can not recognize your spoke
lightly and without thinking to much about what you were writing. You
made not a specific comment on the position as "king of England" but a
much more general statement.

You cannot read, understand English or follow a thread. It is as simple
as that.

Trying to trim posts to suit your ends just will not wash, it simply
shows you up to be a liar.

There is no legislation in English law, as far as I know, which allows
for *as if* anything. Either one is or one isn't!

"no legislation" and "anything are not specific but general.

As I said, you cannot read English or follow a thread.

That statement was not made out of the blue, it was made in reply to a
previous post. That is the whole point of placing is immediately after
a copy of the previous post.

I think there are some few good arguments for your case that the Kings
of England were Dukes of Normandy after 1259. The problem is you don't
bother to find one but prefer going into groundless speculations about
the survival of the title "Queen of England" or the supposed
non-existence of "as if" in English law.

This is eactly what I mean about your innability to either understand
English or follow a thread.

Please, quote me the exact passage where I stated that the *title*
"Queen of England" survives.

Utterly pathetic!

.



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