The Qur'an Gives The Antonym (opposite) Meaning Of Words And Phrases
- From: "E pluribus unum" <work@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 20 Oct 2005 19:01:21 -0500
This fact is well-known to all scholars. It clearly reveals that the Arabic
language of the Qur'an is not always sound as some believe. In the second
part of "The Itqan", the Suyuti speaks explicitly about things which no one
expected to find in the Qur'an. Actually, these defects are not supposed to
occur in any standard Arabic book which complies with the rules and
characteristics of the Arabic language. On page 135, the Suyuti says,
"The word 'after' has been mentioned twice in the Qur'an so as to mean
'before', as in this saying, 'We have written in the psalms (the scripture)
"after the reminder" (21:105) while He meant "before."' Also in this saying,
'The earth "after" that He has extended (79:30) while he meant "before" and
not "after" because the earth was created first "before" and not "after" He
created the heavens,' as Abu Musa indicated."
These are the actual words of Suyuti. The question now is: Does this
linguistic defect conform to any language in the world? Does this comply
with the characteristics of writing and the artistic, eloquent style of
Arabic language? Is it proper, in the Qur'anic style to write "after" when
you mean "before"? How can the reader know the correct meaning since it is
common knowledge that "after" and "before" are opposite words? Is it
sensible that the angel Gabriel meant to say "before" but he instructed
Muhammad to write "after"? It is difficult for us to believe that.
This problem is not confined to one word because the Suyuti provides us with
eight pages (Itqan, part 2, pp. 132-139) full of similar examples found in
the Qur'an in which, according to the interpreters of the texts, the Qur'an
meant the opposite meaning than the literal meaning of the expression. There
is no connection between the literal meaning and the meaning intended by the
Qur'an.
Let us examine together some of the examples the Suyuti presented to us in
his book, the Itqan, part 2,
(A) "The Qur'an means, 'Do not those who believe know that had Allah willed,
He could have guided all mankind', but he said, 'Do not those who believe
despair!' instead of writing 'know' as he meant" (see Thunder: 31). Is
"despair" the same as "know"?
(B) "The Qur'an says in chapter 2:23, '... your martyrs', but it means here,
' ... your partners' (p. 133). After the Suyuti made this remark, he
commented,
"The martyr is supposed to be the person who is killed, or the one who
testifies concerning people's matters, but here it means 'your partners."'
(C) "In chapter Joseph: 20 the word 'Bakhs' (too little) is meant to be
'haram' (forbidden, sacred) contrary to the usual meaning" (p. 132).
(D) "In chapter Mariam (Mary):46 the phrase, 'I certainly will stone you' is
interpreted to mean, 'I certainly will curse you', and not, 'I certainly
will kill you' as its literal meaning suggests" (p. 133).
Let the reader decide for himself as he examines these illustrations.
Why the Qur'an did not say: "Do not know those who believe.. " instead of
"do not the believers give up all hope..." Is "despair" the same as
knowledge? And if the Qur'an intended to say, "Did not ... know" would it be
recorded as to mean "to give up all hope?" The same thing could be said
about "too little" and "martyrs " Does not each word have a different
meaning than the meaning indicated by the Qur'an? Is it one of the
prerogatives of the language to use a word which has a different connotation
than the intended meaning?
Let us state another illustration from "The Itqan" (part 3, p. 251) where
the Suyuti says,
"In chapter the (Rahman):6, The Qur'an says: 'The "Nagm" stars and the
trees bow themselves.' Here the Qur'an does not mean by 'the stars' the
heavenly stars but the plants which do not have trunk. This is the
far-fetched intended meaning."
We would like to state here that there is no one who would imagine or expect
this meaning. Even the Saudi scholars who translated the Qur'an into English
(p. 590) understood the word 'Nagm' ("star") to mean a heavenly star-and
stated it as such. Thus, even the Saudi translators of the Qur'an could not
imagine that the Qur'an has meant by the word "Nagm" ("star"), the plants
which do not have trunks.
I, myself had some doubts about the Suyuti's explanation and thought maybe
it was the Suyuti's fault and not the Qur'an's, or the Saudi scholars. Why
should we attack the Qur'an and blame it for the Suyuti's error? Therefore,
as a candid researcher, I decided to examine the interpretations of the
former Muslim scholars to be sure of the proper interpretation. I referred
to the Baydawi's commentary (p. 705) and found him in full harmony with the
Suyuti's interpretation who stressed that this word alludes to the plants
which sprang from the earth without a trunk. The same interpretation is
found in the Jalalan (p. 450). In Al-Kash-shaf (part 4, p. 443), the
Zamakh-Shari agreed with the mentioned scholars and remarks,
"And the 'star' which is a plant which springs from the earth without a
trunk such as the herbs, for the trees do have trunks."
Thus, let the Saudi scholars correct the translation errors of the Qur'an,
along with another error (as the Suyuti comprehended it) though they are
right in their interpretation of it: The word "amid most" (chapter 2:143)
means - according to Suyuti - righteous or just people (p. 251 also refer to
the Baydawi p. 29 and Tabari 24). Thus Suyuti says,
"The conspicuous meaning of the word suggests the (idea) of intermediary,
while the intended meaning is 'righteous' and this is the far-fetched
meaning."
Another example in which the English translator was proper.
The Qur'an says in chapter 57:29: "Lest the people of the book may know."
This is the literal translation of the phrase. The word means (in both
Arabic and English) "lest" while the intended meaning is that they may know
(refer to the commentary of Jalalan p. 459). The translators of the Qur'an
correctly translated it as "that they may know" which is opposite to the
literal meaning of the word in Arabic.
Yet, before we conclude the discussion of this point, I would like to share
with the readers another strange phrase which illustrates the above
mentioned point even more clearly.
In chapters 75: 1,2 and 90:1, the Qur'an repeats the phrase: "I do not
swear..." This is the literal translation of the phrase, but the
interpreters and the translators of the Qur'an insist that the meaning is:
"I do call...," or "No, I swear" indicating that the word "do not" is
redundant, and when He said, "I do not swear", he meant, "I swear" (refer to
the Jalalan, p. 493, 511; Al-Kash-shaf, part 4, p. 658, 753; and Baydawi,
pp. 772, 799). The Qur'an says,
"I do not swear by the Day of Resurrection"
"I do not swear by the reproachful soul"
"I do not swear by this city"
While he meant (according to all Muslim scholars) that He does swear by the
above three things. The Zamakhshari noted that some had objected to that,
and they have the right to object to this confusion, but others said that
the pre-Islamic, great poet Emro Al-Qays used to do so.
--
KILLFILES are great! Following is a list of "village idiots" bound and
gagged in the straitjackets of my KILLFILE: Nick name: (optional),
Firnando, Sabastawi, LeNoir, FARIS JAWAD, ABU ALWAFA, Franko Pizza, Katrina
, Mujahid , Nasser, Sinbad, Saif Al-Islam, Free Palestine, Salem, Nidal,
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Regarding Israel, GOD said: "I will bless those who bless you, and I will
curse him who curses you. All of the families of the earth will be blessed
in you."
(Genesis 12:3) <== (this is why the "Islamic world" is in ruins)
Regarding the reestablishment of Israel, GOD said: Now therefore thus saith
the Lord, the God of Israel . . . Behold, I will gather them out of all the
countries, whither I have driven them, in mine anger . . . and I will bring
them again unto this place, and I will cause them to dwell safely: and they
shall be my people and I will be their God .
.. . (Deuteronomy 32:36-38) <== (this explains the miracle "rebirth" of
Israel in 1948)
God Bless Israel!
God Bless America!
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