Re: "Don't call me coward"
- From: nystulc@xxxxxx
- Date: 27 Aug 2005 22:34:01 -0700
gjw wrote:
> On 27 Aug 2005 01:19:22 -0700, nystulc@xxxxxx wrote:
>
> >gjw wrote:
> >> Actually, Snape didn't disarm Dumbledore.
> >
> >Niether did he disarm James.
>
> I wasn't the one who made the comparison between Dumbledore and
> Harry Nor did I make any comparison between James and Harry
> (despite their obvious physical resemblance). I said that Snape
> had just mentioned James ("your filthy father"), and that
> therefore "him" used in the next sentence probably referred to
> James.
Right. And I acknowledged that this context consitutes evidence in
favor of your interpretation.
> The other person in this
> discussion made the comparison between Dumbledore and Harry. In
> order for that comparison to stand, there must be a reasonable
> amount of similarity.
And there is. No matter how you look at it, if Snape were to kill
Harry now, this would be far *more* similar to the killing of
Dumbledore a few minutes earlier, than it is to Snape's very indirect
responsibility for the death of James. We have only two candidates for
"him" and Dumbledore better fits the line "Kill me *LIKE* you just
killed him."
> I was mentioned points of dissimilarity.
Which apply equally to James, and therefore cannot negate the fact that
there is *more* similarity to the death of Dumbledore.
Surely you are not trying to convince me that Harry is really talking
about the time that Snape got mad at Norry Knocknose for using Snape's
own hexes, disarmed Knocknose, instulted Knocknose father, and
sectum-sempra'd Knocknose to death while screaming "I am the Half-Blood
Prince". That would be *more* similar, if such a thing had happened,
but so what? Your theory is that "him" refers to James.
Why not just acknowledge that there is some evidence in favor of both
interpretations?
Him = James: Conversation last referred to James, not DD.
Him = DD: Situation better fits "like you killed him, coward".
> >> Since the last "him" mentioned is Harry's father, that is my
> >> interpretation of the text. It also provides an explanation for
> >> Snape's extreme reaction. But you have every right to your own
> >> interpretation, and you might well be right.
> >
> > I agree. Your interpretation also has some evidence, in that
> > James was the last person explicitly identified. However, that
> > is pretty much all you have.
>
> That, and the fact that Snape was responsible for the murder of
> James & Lily, and that Dumbledore said that Snape felt terrible
> remorse over the death of the Potters...
Well ... the problem with this is that it assumes taht DD is right
about Snape. Snape really did feel genuine remorse over what happened
to James & Lily. He has a conscience. If so, then it would seem to
follow that he must feel even greater pain and loss over the death of
DD. For the last 15 years, DD has pretty much been Snape's only real
friend, his only defender, his only supporter, his only real confidant.
Snape has just killed him with his own hand.
.
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