Re: Apostrophes in English usage

In article <3meelaF16i96cU2@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Dave Hinz
<DaveHinz@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

> On 16 Aug 2005 02:32:42 GMT, Alun L. Palmer <elektros@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> > Dave Hinz <DaveHinz@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in
> > news:3mc0c4F167s59U1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx:
>
> >> How can it be "standard English" if fewer people speak it?
>
> > The number of people in India who speak standard English is far greater
> > than the number of people who speak American English, so that argument
> > won't even fly.
>
> I know a lot of people from India, I worked for a very very large
> multinational company for 12 years. I'm sorry, but you can't tell me
> that what they're speaking is "standard English". "today evening", for
> instance - is that standard english, as you see it?
>
> Dave Hinz
>

Nope, that's poor grammar. But still American English is MESSED UP ;-)

"[English doesn't] just borrow words; on occasion, English has pursued
other languages down alleyways to beat them unconscious and rifle their
pockets for new vocabulary."-- James D. Nicoll

I'm currious though as to what the initial question was to this
topic...I have wondered about Rowlings use of double contractions such
as couldn't've and we'd've and whether they are considered proper
English. I had never encountered one before reading her work.
.

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